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he has to get it from someone first to infect others, namely women? "People get h3rpes by having s3x with someone who has the disease. “Having s3x” means aanal, v@ginal, or oraal s3x." - http://www.cdc.gov/std/herpes/stdfact-herpes.htm So if the guy gets the disease it means he got it from a woman first, so how can it be that the male-to-female rates are higher?
AllStarcrushNate AllStarcrushNate 26-30, M 10 Answers Aug 17, 2013 in Community

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you are seriously confused

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Obviously why I'm asking the question, huh?

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If females were spreading it more to males they could never come out and say it in public, that's not politically correct

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Actually, there is a problem with your hypothesis. You assume that all males contract herpes from females. Perhaps the key to your question is, what if the male rate is higher due to the gay population? (Not knocking gays, just a statistical observation!)

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You didn't read the details right. I said according to the medical society, males DO get the viruses from females first but pass them easier than females do.

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It appears most people are not understanding your question. I do understand it but have no answer.

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You sound so confused.

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*facepalm* Obviously why I'm asking the question, huh?

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Ask a doctor. Or Google it.

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*facepalm* I did Google it, which is what lead to the question. Since you think I'm so confused, why don't you tell me just what you think the answer is?

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Most women are after the top 20% of men. It's these infected studs that hand out the permanent diseases.

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Still a believer in that top 20% stuff, man? Lol.

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I watch it happen. What I see I have to believe.

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bisexuals

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