In regard to Kant's "Good Will" philosophy. .Is it possible to have a Good Will, or an intention completely free of any

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Posted by GoodGuyGrowsUp Feb 11th, 2012 at 12:33PM

Not true. Any sort of "Good" will comes from somewhere. I believe we can perceive good and bad outside of consequences, though consequences is a big help and we do desire good consequences in all our actions if we have good will. The question is, what is "good" will. Now where did we get it? Did we evolve an understanding of good will? Did we as protohumans realized a lingering substances of good will?

How can evolution which thrives off of the death of the weaker, provide a sense of good will. Nature is a pretty vicious thing. Take a look at the voodoo wasp. Not a very nice thing to do.

I say that the only concept we have of good will comes not from a Bible or Confucious, or any other religious text, but from the character of God. There is no other possible source.

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   Reply by PolychromeAsh Feb 11th, 2012 at 1:37PM

   I agree it seems even the notion of Good, apart from desired consquences, originates from a Divine Source. As for the appearance of Nature's viciousness, perhaps Nature only appears vicious when viewed with separateness rather than as an ever reconfiguring Whole.

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   Reply by GoodGuyGrowsUp Feb 11th, 2012 at 5:52PM

   The point is that it reconfigures itself on by killing. We cannot get our view of good from this, nor our taste for righteousness because that is a very poor example. If we lived that way, we'd kill off the injured, old, ugly, those with down syndrome, the poor, and so on. Some religions exploit the weak, down trodden and the poor... those are the Karma based ones which state that we're going to merge into nothing or merge with God. The monotheistic ones are the ones that have a real problem with mistreating the poor, and those are the ones that expect a separated view of nature. In Christianity, nature is the state of the great Fall. We caused it to go ugly.

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9 Answers to "In regard to Kant's "Good Will" philosophy. .Is it possible to have a Good Will, or an intention completely free of any"

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   Posted by knightwhispers Feb 11th, 2012 at 12:36PM

   To start with, I am not familair with the 'good Will' philosophy.
   
   I would have thought so. I would have thought that good-will (in itself) is a frame of mind more than it is a force; a measure which to attain which needs no motive other than the desire, in other words. If that makes any sense? :)
   
   ~F~

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   Reply by peza Feb 11th, 2012 at 2:19PM

   maybe you shouldn't have answered then.

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   Reply by knightwhispers Feb 11th, 2012 at 2:21PM

   maybe you should have read my response better? innit ;)

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   Posted by nahdi Feb 11th, 2012 at 1:50PM

   I see it as a devine state, one being of Good Will" I have experienced it and it's essence is so devine and pure, almost as though I am giving of what isn't mine but from God who watches over our every need. I worked as a nurse and I feel it was a blessing. Unconditional love for others is a blessing , to be of sevice is a blesssing.

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   Posted by Pagan1 Apr 10th, 2012 at 11:10AM

   YOU!
   Your intuitive query here...
   Quintessentially defines WHY I have such passion for the Intellect of PolychromeAsh ;)
   ( I certainly prefer getting the mental "*****" first ;)
   
   Kant "Erred" on this one!
   Friedrich Nietzsche makes a far more convincing case of the mankind's development potential to "Superman" realms.
   Furthermore,it's a route of "personal responsibility" rather than the wimpish cowardice demonstrated by the entire cadre of the prolific "Blind Faith" deification cults :)
   
   Thanks PA,
   Keep the stimulus COMING :)

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   Reply by PolychromeAsh Apr 10th, 2012 at 11:16AM

   ;)

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   Posted by TheWicked Mar 10th, 2012 at 10:54AM

   There is potential.
   We are dependent on our guardians to teach right from wrong.
   I believe that instincts for survival come first. That is either already known to us or not.
   I think it's possible to become Good.
   The trouble I think, are the other person(s) views which we grow up with influencing us.
   We can be taught to be good and have the choice to practice it.

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   Posted by Ketsan Feb 11th, 2012 at 7:48PM

   Yes it is.

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   Reply by PolychromeAsh Feb 11th, 2012 at 10:55PM

   How?

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    Posted by BluOmni Feb 11th, 2012 at 6:06PM

    In other words, do we have a "Good will" because of what "good" will come to us as a consequence? Maybe but I think it is more complicated than that. Some people just have a "good will.". It is a part of their temperament.....

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    Reply by PolychromeAsh Feb 11th, 2012 at 10:57PM

    Ahhh, exactly an edge Kant addresses~ temperament, it seems 'Good' & how it should be defined & carried out would superceed temperament, would it not?

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    Reply by nahdi Feb 13th, 2012 at 10:26AM

    Please do contact me and explain more , if you would be so kind....

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    Posted by CPTrilling Feb 11th, 2012 at 1:46PM

    The philosopher seems to be leaning the idea of a rational mind like psychoanalysts do dramatic metaphor, though I'm not familiar with the context. I believe the subconscious is real, at any rate, so the question here reduces to opinion regarding specific behavior.

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    Posted by SpeedOfDarkness Feb 11th, 2012 at 12:31PM

    A "good" will should be something that has an end result benefiting the person in question.

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    Reply by PolychromeAsh Feb 11th, 2012 at 1:40PM

    Logically, it would appear so. .

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    Reply by PolychromeAsh Feb 11th, 2012 at 1:41PM

    However, we have no concrete assurance of results; we deal in probabilities. .

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