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I Keep Kosher

Pretty Much Kosher

By: chedington1
Written on February 13th, 2013
Age: 46-50 , Male
32 people have read this story

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3 responses
  • chedington1

    The "concept" is that in ground form - rice flour for instance was not readily distinguishable from wheat flour. The argument that they could not be readily distinguished - lest a mistake be made led to the convention - an abundance of caution - however as I said it is not based on any biblical law - or even tradition as it is shallow in history AND today there is no mistaking the source of the grain.

    As I said - as a pretty observant Jew - I look at this particular rule as BS- a bunch of malarky - and a "tradition" that was never required or has in today's world any validity.

    More than this - could you imagine getting invited to a Sephardic home as an Ashkenaz and refusing to recognize their Kashrut during passover? No way - I know the Sephardim are doing it correctly - and have it right - when the Ashkenaz got this one very wrong indeed.

    I like praying in Sephardic synagogues - particularly in Israel - cool crowd of guys.

    Feb 13
    1 like
  • LukeS80

    Why would rice be considered leavened?

    Feb 13
    1 like
    • chedington1

      Oh the leavened part - the issue comes from how unleavened bread is made - there are only so many minutes of exposure to water before baking permitted. During passover no rye or wheat type flours are permitted - lest they be exposed to moisture and perhaps rise - only unleavened bread - that has been baked in accordance with the rules. Rice flour - could be made to rise and baked but it still would not be bread - it is not listed as Chometz - rice is specifically not listed in the bible - it did not exist in the times of Egypt there - it came from asia later. Like I said malarky - serious nonsense....

      Feb 13
      1 like